I have had another letter stating…
Ectopia of cerebellar tonsils reaching caudally approximately 15mm beneath the level of the foramen magnum with obliteration of foramen magnum, without evidence of cervical syrinx and probably some inferior herniation of the brainstem/medull oblongata itself.
Your MRI cerebrospinal fluid flow shows preserved but significantly reduced anterior flow at level of the foramen magnum and no flow posteriorly at the level of the foramen magnum.
My appointment with neurosurgeon isn’t until the 24th April, which I understand must be that it isn’t urgent. But I wondered if anyone can ‘translate’ for me - I don’t understand the letter - do i have restricted and blocked csf?
Would surgery be required? I want to go to my appointment understanding this a little more so I can make an informed choice. I just want to do whatever is in my best interests and best for my long term health. But i don’t know what that is!
Thank you, and sorry for the continual posts but I feel so stupid as I’m totally clueless!