Hi all, me again, the Dr’s have said that my 5 year old has Arnold Chiari Malformation, is there a difference between Type 1 and Arnold or are they both the same??
I’m pretty new to this but as far as I’m aware they are the same thing.
Hope that’s right,
Good luck x
Technically, an Arnold Chiari malformation is a Type II Chiari malformation, most commonly seen in the spina bifida patient population.
However, as Arnold Chiari is often used(even by medical professionals) to mean any Chiari malformation, I would take the use of that term generically, unless the MD specifies.
It is certainly worthwhile asking the MD to clarify(and, unless they work with a lot of Chiari patients, they may know less than you). Here's the link to the NIH web site http://www.ninds.nih.gov/disorders/chiari/detail_chiari.htm
Note their specific definitions.
Unless your child has spina bifida, the most likely specific diagnosis is a Chiari I, with the treating MD using Arnold Chiari generically(and technically incorrectly). The distinction is anatomical in nature and makes little difference to anyone but the surgeon.
Thankyou, I’m always grateful for more information